Absolutely not. While there was sympathy toward the Nazi/fascist movement in the US (especially in the 1930's - Great Depression), the attack on Pearl Harbor was largely seen as a direct foreign nation attack rather than a relatively unknown insurgency from some distance country in western Asian. Japan was already seen as a threat to the US and was framed by the US government as a threat prior to the Pearl Harbor attacks. For example, the US government and public were well aware of Japanese aggression in the pacific and banned steel and oil exports (in July of 1941) to Japan before Pearl Harbor to prevent an expansion of Japanese power and conquest (especially to prevent the usage of planes and ships in the pacific - the US provided Japan with a majority of its oil (Japan did NOT get oil from Germany as she was void of oil and only was able to obtain oil from conquested lands and Romania (an ally) - which she failed in obtaining, namely southern USSR because she scarified securing southern Russian oil fields from trying to secure Moscow)). Aside from the political aspect, there was a racist component attributing Asians to illegitimate immigrants (similar to how Latinos are portrayed today). The combination of the political and social factors thus led to a broad support for a war effort following the Pearl Harbor attacks.

I highly recommend reading Daniel Yergin's The Prize to get a more comprehensive understanding of this topic. Yergin describes the reasons why Japan attacked the US and how FDR was able to garner so much support for the war effort.

Also I apologize if I did not adequately answer the question (in the context of the Nazis) but I tried to expand upon the question and allow you and other readers to understand why FDR was able to garner so much support against the Japanese.