The French and British were the ones who put the humiliating terms of the Treaty of Versailles, yet the occupation of France was a lot milder compared to what happened in Poland and occupied Soviet Union. Why didn't Hitler rail against the French, the ancient enemy of Germany, like he did against the Slavic people?
It’s all down to ideology of race. Within Nazi ideology the French were, if not Aryan, then close enough, while Slavs were a race lower than Aryans, though not as low as Jews, who were slated for extermination while Slavs were meant to be exploited for their labor. The French were a colonial power, and to use a current term, they fit into Nazi views of whiteness. The French could be turned into good Nazis, hence the Vichy regime. Slavs however, were seen as a kind of exploitable labor class meant to be forced to work to serve the Reich.