I’ve been looking around for this answer and I’m not sure if I can’t find it because it doesn’t exist or because I’m not asking the right way. So-
In early humans, when did they go though puberty and start successfully producing children? Was there a big latency period between the two as with modern society, where people go through puberty around 13 but don’t have children for about another decade? I would imagine not as if there was no desire for/knowledge of birth control, once sex drive was created during puberty, children should soon follow?
Were women born more ready to have children? Like if puberty were the same as it is now, and they started having kids at 14, the -4 year old mom isn’t close to being finished developing physically even though she’s able to carry children. Would that have further increased child mortality?
Pre-agriculture more or less means pre-writing, which means pre-history. I suspect you may get better answers in /r/AskAnthropology.
In particular I found this thread with answers from /u/random6x7 to cover what you’re asking.