In short the answer is no.
To be more specific, the split happened at the end of the "genonic" period in the late 900s.
Since Talmudic erac.100bc-400ad, (for Pharisee, or mainline Jewish today), which solidified Jewish practice, it was established an informal and formal way of creating and establishing traditions and ways to interpret (ritual) laws themselves. Highly specific (mesachtacs pesach, perek makom shanahagu - citation) is locality. Essentially communal customs are determined by your local community or city, and any questions must be referred to your local rabbinic authority. Any disagreement on interpretation is expected and normal, and you simply follow your local communal tradition and interpretation.
In the era following the destruction of the temple, some of these traditions were codified and decided for all jewish people (mishna gemara, etc) where the primary communities were in Palestine and Babylon.
At the end of the first millennium, more Jewish people began to move into Europe, and sizeable communities arose.
Circa 1000, there was a French-german Rabbi named rabbenu gershom that announced several edicts (cherem d'rabbenu gershom).
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Divorce requires consent from both parties (previously only required male assent).
No polygamy.
These edicts were widely adopted by European jewelry, but we're outright ignored by middle-eastern and North African jewery. Not out of ill-will, but simply recognizing the difference in the communities (for example, polygamy in Christian Europe made sense to ban, but in Islamic and more tolerant Eastern Christian countries, polygamy was more widely practiced anyways).
This split in accepting specific authorities are considered the defining differentiation between Ashkenazi and Sephardic communities.
Another widely recognized difference is whether kitniyot (legumes and other grain-like cereals are permitted in passover-sephardic allow it, but not Ashkenazi).
Since that time, each tradition recognizes the existence and validity of the other without questioning the religious piety and validity of the other. As these differences traditions are considered to be a part of being a pious Jew. And each group has further divions within different prayers details different songs and customs etc. Most prominent, different pronounciation of ritual Hebrew (lashon hakodesh) and even different script versions of the Hebrew language (modern Israeli Hebrew compromised and does the script as Ashkenazic, (vs Rashi script) but pronounces it as Sephardic would -a different tradition than either -the yemenite community, had an altogether different pronounciation considered to be more authentic to the origin) and bear in mind the Hebrew alphabet altogether is Assyrian and not ancient Hebrew).
Anyways, there were a slight hiccup in 1240 when a certain prominent Sephardic Rabbi (aka maimonedes) released a treatise on Jewish philosophy (guide for the perplexed) that to some Ashkenazi rabbis felt a bit sacriligious, but that was quickly disregarded and they deeply apologized for doubting the validity of a different way of approaching faith (at the philosophical level, they always ok with the ritual and other Sephardic rabbis, just this one which was novel).
Lastly in modern Israel, there are racial tensions between the two groups, but this is based on skin color and general culture (middle-eastern vs european) but no one ever questions the validity of the others Faith's and traditions (except for Ashkenazi food which aside from brisket is nasty - gefilte fish, cholent, ptcha, kugel - blah)