Why was it them that colonised the Americas in the 16th century and later Africa in the 18th-19th Centuries and not vice versa? Was it a result of their geological position from the civilisation’s beginning? Was it religion?
There is a flaw in your initial premise (maybe one and a half). Europe was not more technologically advanced than the rest of the world. It had military technological advancements that the Mesoamericas did not have. However, they were more advanced than Europeans in many areas such as astronomy [1], math, and agriculture (specifically irrigation[2]).
Technology doesn't move like a tech tree in video games. A civilization leader doesn't say, "wouldn't it be great if we had bronze?". It moves more haphazardly. Cultures & nations will excel in some areas but not in others. Sometimes it is due to culture but more often than not it is due to other factors such as geography, environment, available resources, or even population size. A lot of technological advancements are due to a long trial and error process involving a lot of chance and luck.
However, when compared to the Africans and the Mesoamericans, the Europeans had superior military technologies. Why? The likeliest reason for this is that the peoples of these continents were more isolated from one another than the Europeans. By the late fifteenth century how many wars had been fought between the between the Inca and the Aztecs? Compare that to the number of wars fought between the French and the English? Or between Catholic European powers and Islamic powers? The close proximity of all of these kingdoms lead to a lot of warfare, which led to more improvements in military technology.
[1] Leon-Portilla, M. (Sept. 1990). * Time and Reality in the Thought of the Maya*, University of Oklahoma Press
[2] Coe, Michael D. (2011). The Maya, Thames & Hudson