Do present day latin americans have iberian jewish and morish ancestry?

by estebanagc
BriefausdemGeist

Ignore the other poster.

Some do, but it’d be intermixed and largely negligible for the vast majority of people. There are pockets of Jewish centers, mostly in former Dutch colonies in Latin America, that would have a higher percentage of Sephardim ancestry - Sephardim having a larger connection to the seafaring colonial empires of the 15th-18th century European powers than Ashkenazim who largely remained insular in central and Eastern Europe during the same period. It’s become accepted that a number of Columbus’ crew were either Moriscos or hidden jews (possibly both), so both have ahead a degree of impact on Iberian American influence and history.

There are more modern pockets of immigration to South America in particular, post-WWII, that have a larger number of Jewish European emigres. And some countries have had low level but continuous immigration from Levantine areas since the 19th century, particularly Lebanese to Mexico, Venezuela, Argentina, and Brazil - although the earlier immigrant groups from that region were Christian minorities than Muslim if that’s what you were asking.

Moorish/Islamic migration to the new world was largely non existent with the exception of slaves or Moriscos in the earlier period of colonization. Islamic migration has increased steadily over the last century, and - if memory serves - one of the largest mosques in the world is in Caracas, funded in large part by the Morraccan monarchy. (Admittedly, which royal family funded it I may be incorrect, I’m working from memory of a New World and Islam class I took nearly a decade ago.)