How comes the classic Ottomans were able to field such large armies despite not having having a much larger population (sometimes even smaller,) than it's enemies?

by AidenMetallist

Bayezid being able to muster a nearly 90 000 men force to fight Timur in Ankara while the French and Holy Roman Empire (arguably Europe's most populated realms) struggled to muster 30 000 for a single battle never ceases to amaze me. A similar amount besieging Constantinople in 1453 and several other cases cross my mind. Was it because of the Ghazi warrior culture? Because of conscription? Was it because the large amounts of Turkic nomads living in central Anatolia (most of whom could fight on horseback)?

Blackfangwolf009

The Ottomans had a more efficient administration that was able to levy troops more effectively than their neighbors. Plus the rose in a time when everybody was fighting everybody else so they few rivals that were able to spare most of their resources to the war.