Outside the former European colonies, why are Romance languages largely spoken in only France and Southern Europe considering the reach of the Roman empire?

by HELLO_ALL_123
chiron3636

Not to discourage further answers but you can find answers to similar questions here:

From /u/Enrico_Dandolo - https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2qg79k/question_about_the_spread_of_latin_in_the_western/

/u/anphph focuses on the ERE - https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/7vwdmc/why_did_latin_persist_and_morph_into_the_romance/

While /u/LosDosTacosLocos and /u/YuunofYork go into detail on Latin structure pre and post Roman Empire and how it changes - https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/amqhqq/at_what_point_did_people_start_to_realize_that/