I'm sorry if this question isn't specific, I'll try to clarify here:

Henry II is the first King of England is sometimes credited in more recent times to be the founder of the Angevin Empire, because of his substantial lands in France. Based on my limited and quick research, the term Empire isn't really accurate, as he governed over his titles as seperate entities, similar to his ancestor William I. From what I understand, his lands in France were therefore subject to French law, and essentially under the King of France.

But Henry's highest title is King of England, and given that he had at times control over greater parts of France than the King himself, did Louis VII have any authority over Henry's lands on the continent? It seems that Louis was afraid Henry might eventually take over as King of France. Were Henry to lay claim to the Kingdom of France, would it have been seen as a revolt or conquest? (Sorry for the if question, no need to answer it if unclear)

I guess the basis of my question is the claim I've often seen that Medieval England wasn't a key player in continental European politics until the 100 years war, or even not until the Tudors. People that makes these claims often say that England is only being hyped up because of its later dominant Empire. This has often seemed odd to me, especially for the rule of the 3 Angevin kings.

To try to simplify: Were Henry's lands in France more of a loose confederation of weak vassals, or was Henry seen as a second king almost next to Luis?

Additionally, his marriage to Eleanor of Aquitaine must confirm him as a man of high importance. Did that marriage secuire his control over Aquitaine, or was it still ruled by Eleanor as she had prior to their marriage?

I'm sorry if my rambling here is confusing, and if I haven't simplified my answer. I'll welcome any insight into the complicated political landscape of this region in the mid 12th century, even if it doesn't relate to much of what I've discussed/asked