Hello! I'm sure you're surprised to be getting a reply now, but the alert for this question has been starred in my inbox since you posted it... I talked about Matthew 19:12 some time ago, the book I reference that discusses this verse in great detail is here and pretty widely held in libraries, if you'd like to get yourself a copy. Jesus almost certainly didn't mean married men there, that makes just no sense at all, in no way would a married man of that period been seen as a eunuch. The usual shall we say "PC" interpretation is that it means voluntarily celibate men, like priests. I don't know if you can make a direct link to the Galli in that verse, but literal eunuchs were certainly around in Jesus' time and there was no way he wasn't at least peripherally aware of them.