When did dancing between men and women become socially acceptable in Europe? Or was it always acceptable since time immemorial?

by Experimentalphone

I am asking because here in Bangladesh or in most Muslim cultures, dancing between men and women is totally forbidden. I was wondering given how Christian Europe was, whether there was a similar prohibition. Or is it just that dancing between men and women has always been socially acceptable in Europe since time immemorial or when history began?

somethingicanspell

Dancing in some form like music seems to be a cultural universal that can be attested to nearly 9000 years ago and is probably far older so we can safely say that every human culture has probably had some form of dance since time immemorial. Since we have written records of European civilizations there has also been mentions of dancing. There are examples in the Iliad for example. Men and women have also at least since we have records of it seemed to have danced together So it is also safe to say that at no point in European history has dancing ever not been popular and a no point did men and women not dance together at least in some capacity . The question of whether dancing between men and women was socially acceptable is more a question of the context. First Europe has never had a universal culture so attitudes have always been different regionally and throughout time. In general dancing was seen as somewhat suspect by christian theologians and even some of the more conservative pre-christian philosophers. It seems that it early roman and greek culture men and women did dance together but it was not seen as wholly acceptable. We know very little about the customs of non-greco-roman dance in this era because it is not something that is easy to ascertain from the archeological record for pre-literate societies. They still seemed to have been preformed. By the Hellenistic era certain types of formal dances with the careful supervision of some sort of chaperone were usually tolerated, some forms of dancing were seen as suspect. The more rowdy dances the occasioned festivals it both roman, medieval, and early modern history were often decried as immoral but were performed anyway. The romans and the greeks might pay or have slaves perform erotic dances but it certainly wasn't acceptable for their daughters or sons to do them. This with some variation was the trend until relatively recently. Dancing between men and women was a common form of entertainment. There were customs for how this was done. The more conservative sections of society would always be somewhat skeptical of dancing but it would be tolerated. However, many people especially the poor did not follow the rigid customs of acceptable dance and that was sort of seen as part of the way of the world. The sort of modern liberalization of dance which has made more overtly sexualized dancing acceptable is a product of the early 1900s as victorian attitudes waned and Europe secularized even so that has been a gradual transition. But in summary

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  1. Men in women dancing has been acceptable in some contexts at least since the Hellenistic era
  2. But those contexts have changed overtime