Why did the Nazi's not mobilise the female population of Germany to replace the jobs made empty from conscription.

by TheKillerRabbit42

I'm aware of how this would contradict with the Nazi's view of women's role in society and how (what were at the time) such drastic measures might lead to a second "stab in the back" in the eyes of the Nazi's. I'm also aware of how they made "use of" so to say of forced and slave labor from POWs and civilians in occupied territory. Are there any other factors at play that make Germany seemingly appear as an outlier compared to other nations?

Bobaram

One of the major reasons was the Nazi Party's ideal of what a woman was/should do. They believed that women should primarily be spouses and child bearer's, going so far as to create the Lebensborn program. The Lebensborn program was specifically designed to breed a Aryan's of "pure" heritage by basically forcing women to copulate with hand picked soldiers/members of the Third Reich.

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Aside from that they did have a Labour Serice program requiring Men to serve in it for at least 6 months before Military service. They did amend this to include six months of service for women as well once the war was going in an effort to curtail their unemployment/production issues. Along with this they did eventually allow women to serve in limited miltary/government roles and also started a program for them to help with agricultural needs.