It seems like if a place in the Americas was colonized by England or France (with the exception of Haiti because of the revolution), it had relatively little interracial reproduction and turned mostly white, whereas Spain or Portugal had the opposite of that, which is strange because of how actively brutal they were toward native peoples. Did they simply stop sending colonists earlier? Was it a cultural difference, a different economic strategy, or Latin America just being more densely populated to begin with?
Hi -- more can always be said, but these older answers on the topic may be of interest.
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5gfhga/why_were_spanish_and_portuguese_colonisers_of_the/ -- by u/historianla
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/14fyjq/why_were_native_americans_more_completely/ -- by u/Yawarpoma