After the French and American Revolutions, why did this not create a domino effect that resulted in revolutions to overthrow the monarchy in England and the Germanic states such as Prussia and Austria?

by raketenfakmauspanzer
MyPigWhistles

Can you maybe rephrase your question for more clarity? There was a series of revolutions in all German states (including Prussia und Austria) in 1848/49, the so called March Revolution(s). Are you asking why they failed and didn't overthrow the monarchy? Or if they were the result of a domino effect?