Really important one-is there any evidence about the Danzig massacres and the killing of more than 58000 Germans before the start of WW2? Did this cause Germany to invade Poland and the start of WW2? If yes, did Germany had the right to get in a war with France and the UK, as they atacked Germany? | AskHistorians Archive Observer

Really important one-is there any evidence about the Danzig massacres and the killing of more than 58000 Germans before the start of WW2? Did this cause Germany to invade Poland and the start of WW2? If yes, did Germany had the right to get in a war with France and the UK, as they atacked Germany?

by Dimitrije336

I read this one for a couple of times now. Are there any WW2 historians to reply on this, and tell us their opinion?

DMVbandz

This has been discussed here before I’ll link the post. The first comment should answer your question pretty well.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3zb1js/is_there_any_accepted_explanation_to_the/?utm_source=amp&utm_medium=&utm_content=post_num_comments

u/Georgy_K_Zhukov