My understanding is that prior to the Renaissance, the world was fairly equal. There were people living feudally and tribally. The feudal system (in its various forms) was practiced in many parts of Europe and Asia, but I don't know if it really existed elsewhere. I don't think any particular group of people had vastly different ideas around the time of 700-1400 CE.
Why did the renaissance spring up in Europe in particular and not elsewhere (or am I wrong, and it did happen elsewhere)? Why did the enlightenment springup in Europe? How are these events connected?
I'm just going to spitball a response, and you can correct me wherever you like.
When looking at the cause for the Renaissance, the general answer is that it was caused by the rise in the importance of cities, the creation of the middle class, but the most important aspect of the Renaissance and the reason why it greatly differs from other eras is the self awareness that they are different and the aspect of humanism. In short terms humanism is the focus on the reality of life and the human world rather than working towards the afterlife.
The Renaissance didn't only start in Europe but it uniquely started in Italy until it spread a few centuries later to Northern Europe. At the time Italy was not unified was separate city states. A very large component of why it was a European phenomenon that began in Italy specifically was because the revival of the classics. The greatness of the Ancient Roman era was being brought up through literature, architecture, and the arts and it makes sense for it to start where the heart of the Roman Empire lied. Furthermore, Italy in a way didn't really go through feudalism to the extent the rest of Europe did and we're much more urban based allowing for the development of industries and a working class.
Is there a specific question pertaining to the Renaissance you had that I may be able to help with?