This is in no way meant to be another ignorant, eurocentric question meant to bring down Eastern civilization. That being said, I'm genuinely curious as to how the Chinese could suffer such a humiliating defeat when the British had such a difficult time subjugating other countries in Asia. Wikipedia says the first Opium War saw 18,000 Chinese dead and only 70 British dead. To make a comparison, the conquest of Burma cost the British 15,000 casualties to a higher but unknown amount of British casualties. These wars happened only fifteen years apart, and I would (perhaps igonrantly) assume that the Burmese and Chinese forces were on the same level.