From my understanding the Vandals have been all over Europe basically tbh Europe is one of the most racially mixed places in my view back in the old world times the most mixed places now racially in modern times is places like Brazil, Latin America basically all of the America’s. But in old world times Europe was the most mixed to me especially Italy and Spain that have had North African, Arabic, and European invasions that have left there mark?
But my question is why didn’t the Vandals invade the black part of west Africa? Any insight
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!