So I know that the Dutch rebelled and fought Spain for independence but HRE mostly stayed neutral during the war.
What I am confused about is that Spanish Netherlands fell under the Bergundian Imperial Kreiss. So that means the Dutch paid taxes to the HRE and contributed to the defense to the HRE. To me this would make the Dutch under Austrian Habsburg not Spanish Habsburg.
u/recon196
An entity that belongs in the HRE does not mean it is owned by the HRE or its emperor. In the case of the Dutch Revolt in the Low Countries, its constituent entities (e.g., Holland, Zeeland, Guelders, Frisia) belonged to Philip II, who was also the King of Spain (and Duke of Milan, and King of Sardinia, of Portugal since 1580, of England until 1558, etc etc etc).
The membership of these entities in the Burgundian Kreiss was set up by Charles V, Philip II's father, as a way to set up its own governance and military system independently of the HRE. In short, the Kreiss meant there was a layer of governance that Charles V and his successors could control, to limit direct HRE influence.
These entities paid dues to the HRE, yes, but they paid their taxes to their king, namely Philip II of Spain. They belonged to him. Thus, when they revolted due to religion, heresy, taxation, and spanish furies, they did so against Philip II, who was King of Spain and marshaled the resources of his empire against the Dutch. The largest contingent was Spanish, so it was said that the Dutch rebelled against Spain.
And now you know why the Dutch national anthem says,
Een Prince van Oraengien
Ben ick vrij onverveert,
Den Coninck van Hispaengien
Heb ick altijt gheeert.