A common argument against any sort of gun control is the story that that is what Hitler did in Germany: they took away the guns from the population and that left them powerless against the Nazis to take control of the government. I was recently talking with my dad and he said that, in the book The Rise and Fall of the Third Reich, he didn’t recall any mention of such a ploy.
My understanding is that Hitler won power through election and that it was rhetoric and the promise of making Germany a great country again after their defeats and embarrassments from WWI that lead to the power of the National Socialists and their regime.
Was gun control and public arms seizure a part of Hitler’s process?
Hey, mate, not trying to shut down any discussion about this subject or anything but a very excellent answer to a similar question has already been provided by u/kieslowskifan. https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3o4f89/what_was_the_state_of_gun_ownership_in_prefascist/
TLDR; Nazi Germany is not a very good historical example against gun control.