Do we know why both Edward VIII and George VI of the UK had so few children?

by [deleted]

Hello everyone,

From a few clicks around Wikipedia, I have some questions about why Edward VIII never had any children and why his brother George VI had two girls and no more.

Edward VIII was around 42 years old when he became king. As the heir to the throne since the age of 16, is there any particular reason(s) why he did not marry and have children before the death of his father in 1936? Surely there was a lot of pressure for the heir to create heirs of his own?

When George VI became king at the end of 1936 his youngest child was only around 6 years old and he had no male heirs. Was it considered at all important to have a male heir in 1936, or after the long reign of queen Victoria did that sort of thing just not matter anymore?

Also, two children seems like a very low number for the 1930s. Was this normal among the aristocracy at the time? Were the public/media expecting that George would have more children and perhaps a son that would become king?

alexrider20002001

Well Edward VIII was rumored to be infertile from measles or something like that. So that may be why he didn't rush and why no illegitimate children appeared despite having lovere during the years leading up to his succession. Wallis Simpson the woman he sacrificed the throne for was rumored to be infertile. Both of George VI's daughters were delivered by cesarean section and a potential third cesarean section was considered risky back then.