Does the elimination of people of African descent in the 1800s in Argentina qualify as a genocide?

by saberdiferente

The Argentine government sent people to die as soldiers in the Paraguayan war. It disproportionately affected the male population, thus reducing births. People fled and the black Argentine population was forced underground.

For me, this absolutely qualifies as a genocide. However, I get routinely shut down because people didn’t die as “innocents” and people claim that what happened in Argentina doesn’t fit the definition of genocide.

Can someone please clarify or point me to resources? Learning about black history is important to me and I’d like to know the truth, whatever it is.

https://www.ibtimes.com/blackout-how-argentina-eliminated-africans-its-history-conscience-1289381

Definition

Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide

Article II

In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:

  • Killing members of the group;
  • Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
  • Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
  • Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
  • Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
Bernardito

There is always more to be said, but these two answers (I, II) by /u/Legendarytubahero answers your question out of the perspective of modern scholarship within the topic.