From what I've read it seems as if the entirety of the reconquista was left up to the Kingdom of Asturias. The Moors would certainly have been seen as a threat especially to the Franks, but did they just not care after Charles Martel pushed them back over the Pyrenees? I feel like other European kingdoms would have been more concerned with the caliphate conquering Spain, but as far as I'm aware it was the Spanish Kings who took it back themselves. Any clarification would be great thanks!
I posted two replies to similar questions both here and here as well as had some fun with the silliness of the later versions of events here .
Simply put- no one really saw it as a crisis. It was a local issue based almost entirely in the local politics of the inherently weak and unstable Gothic kingdom. Certainly neither of the closest neighbours saw it as a crisis.
The Lombard’s had just come under the rule of King Liutprand and his main interest in the Muslims was using their attacks upon Byzantium to try and consolidate his holdings at the expense of Byzantine influence in Italy.
Meanwhile Charles Martel was utterly fixated upon regaining control over Toulouse, and had shown in 719 he would rather the Muslims take it rather than allow it remain independent of him (indeed, there is some evidence to suggest that Toulouse and with it the entire Duchy of Aquatine had not only broken away from the Franks, they had allied with the rump Gothic regime in Narbonne).
Certainly the idea of both a) it was a big bad Jihad by the Umayyads and b) Charles Martel stopped the Muslim invasion of Europe are later creations used to justify later propaganda needs.
Any questions/more details, please ask.