How did Congress Republicans and the Freedmen Bureau manage to confiscate former Confederate land and give it out to freedmen during Reconstruction?

by wiffsmiff

I am reading about reconstruction for my history class, and I am just confused on how this even happened. By that, I mean how did they get through all the regulations that were in place (4th amendment, etc). Was it just a disregard of those by the radical Republicans, or was it any loophole or am I misinterpreting the laws in place at the time?

ScreamYouFreak

They were essentially under martial law due to their treasonous acts.

“Congress also passed the Reconstruction Acts. These initially were vetoed by President Johnson, but later were overridden by Congress. The first Reconstruction Act placed 10 Confederate states under military control, grouping them into five military districts that would serve as the acting government for the region. One major purpose was to recognize and protect the right of African Americans to vote. Under a system of martial law in the South, the military closely supervised local government, elections, and the administration of justice, and tried to protect office holders and freedmen from violence. Blacks were enrolled as voters and former Confederate leaders were excluded for a limited period.”

Source: Lumen Learning