No, by the early twentieth century there was no longer any real distinction between the fashions of different European countries. You may be interested in my previous answers which explain this:

• How visually distinct was Elizabethan English fashion from styles on the European continent?

• Why was Paris the centre of European, or at least British and American women's fashion in the 19th century?

• Why are countries' traditional costumes usually from the 1800s?