The Roman Empire had many communal baths that people could use frequently, yet 1500 years later Queen Elizabeth was wealthy enought to only have 4 baths a year. Why did bathing go from easily obtainable to incredibly rare?

by MemeLordArmo

Was it to do with the Roman Empire being vastly wealthy and prosperous for its time or the architecture used by the Romans or something entirely different?

BRIStoneman

Hey, I wrote an answer about the decline of Roman style 'bathing' and how that didn't mean that medieval people were filthy here, which I hope is helpful.