I think capitalism originated centuries ago when the state began forcing feudal land serfs into wage Labor. With the advent of the poorhouses in Western Europe, many serfs that found themselves into poverty were forced into horrible working conditions. Many rich aristocrats condemned poor people as if it’s their fault for being poor. I wonder if I am on the right track here. It seems that capitalism creates poverty and it’s origins lies with the state forcing the peasantry into working for this new system of economics.
I wrote a comment a couple of months ago about how post WWII economic histography has overturned the idea of feudualism as a distinct economic system and the evidence we have of people participating in markets in all sorts of ways, including wage labour, dating back 4000 years.
You also may be interested in this comment I wrote for one of the floating threads about the first two places in the world to see the disappearance of peacetime famines: in the Netherlands in the 1590s and England in the 1620s, due to a combination of improved agricultural techniques and improved social support for the poor (informally in the Netherlands, and via poor laws being legally enforced in England).
I'm happy to do my best to answer any follow-up questions.