Why aren't the old Anglo Saxon kings counted as part of the continuity of English Kings?

by Khwarezm

More specifically, why is Edward the first (died in 1307, killed lots of Scots and Welsh) considered to be Edward the first when you have older kings like Edward the Confessor with the same name? Was this deliberate on the part of the new Norman kings, even though they were taking on the pre-existing position of King of England?

J-Force

I answered a similar question a few months ago