This is a controversial topic, as you're probably aware. The answer, therefore, isn't simple, but it can be fairly accurately summarized as: yes, but Germany wasn't all that different from other countries in Europe at the time and might even have been slightly better than other countries in this regard.

The watershed moment for modern antisemitism in Europe is the Dreyfus Affair, which happened in France but had repercussions for the whole continent. A full discussion of the Affair is a bit beyond the scope of your question but the short version is that a Jewish officer in the French army was falsely accused and convicted of treason, and the whole series of events resulted in a public outbreak of antisemitic rhetoric. You can read more about it here:

https://www.history.com/news/what-was-the-dreyfus-affair

The most significant aspect of the Affair for Germany was the same as that elsewhere in Central and Western Europe, where Jews had generally enjoyed emancipation since the Napoleonic period. This was that the political divisions of left and right, which had been established by and large during the French Revolution, were revitalized, and the right became closely identified with political antisemitism until the end of World War II.

In Germany, the primary repercussion was the emergence of explicitly antisemitic political parties and, most significantly, the promulgation in 1892 of an antisemitic platform plank from the mainstream German Conservative Party, although the lack of reverberation of the plank even within the party resulted in its revocation four years later.

That this plank was revoked says something about antisemitism in Germany generally, which was that, while it was certainly present, it was not a strong motivating factor in the period between 1871 (the founding of the German Empire) and 1918 (creation of the Weimar Republic). There was a sort of "country club" antisemitism among most of the elites, which was stronger on the right, and there was a vocal minority of interests on the right with strongly antisemitic opinions based in a combination of religious, racial, and economic prejudices. Until the Weimar period, these forces were extremely limited in their influence. Instead, Germany was marked by the extent to which Jews were a fully integrated population in German society. German Jews overwhelmingly spoke German as a first language. They were either Reform (Liberal) Jews who viewed the Jewish religion as needing to compromise with modernity, converts to Christianity, or atheists. They had entered the white collar professions with great success, including some limited experience in government. And in 1932, the year before Hitler took power, more Jews married non-Jews than married Jews -- the single most significant marker of integration.

What Hitler was able to mobilize was a wave of antisemitism that emerged in the aftermath of Germany's loss in World War I. To be fair, this wave also included strong denunciations not only of the political left but of democracy itself and of the imperial era political elites. However, there is little evidence to suggest that antisemitism was a decisive factor in the Nazis' success electorally. Rather, many voters who voted for the NSDAP did so despite the antisemitism of the party, rather than because of it. Although these people might eventually become antisemites with years of government indoctrination, the absence of a strongly antisemitic popular movement in Germany that the NSDAP could exploit meant that, particularly during elections, it was necessary for the Nazis to downplay antisemitism rather than foreground it.

Finally, even when initially in power, the Nazis couldn't safely implement a radically antisemitic agenda without risking the loss of support. As a result, it was more than two years before Jews' citizenship was stripped and another three years after that before any widespread internment of Jews in Germany occurred. Although the regime was ultimately violently and genocidally antisemitic, and its programs required the collaboration of a substantial number of "ordinary Germans," there's little evidence to suggest that antisemitism in Germany before the Nazis was ever as significant as it was in France or Russia.

Tl;dr - not really, but it's complicated.