Agriculture started in the Middle East and North America roughly around 10,000 B.C. Is it just coincidence that agriculture started around the same time with to cultures that had no interaction with each other?

by drowawayzee

As a follow up, I believe the consensus is that agriculture in the Middle East and the Americas obviously happened independent of each other. Did the farming in Asia occur independently of the farming in the ME? Is their any discussion among historians on the statistical anomaly that both cultures developed farming around the same time independent of each other? Or is it due to a direct consequence of the Ice Age ending and therefore giving opportunity for humans around the globe to farm?

Stormtemplar

While it's possible you may get an answer here, as this question concerns things that predate the historical (written) record, you may have better luck over at /r/AskAnthropology, who are better equipped to deal with prehistory humans.