The Roma and Jewish people have had similar histories and origins. Both come from different regions of the world, India and the Middle East respectively, but then migrated to Europe. They suffered persecution throughout most of their history in Europe, and were considered to be at the bottom of society. Their homelands became under the rule of the British Empire, which was more than happy to partition it into new states (ie Pakistan-India split and Sykes-Picot). They were both killed in the millions during the Holocaust, but only the Jews got a state afterwards. I understand Zionism existed before the Holocaust, but why did a Romani version never exist for India? Why was a Jewish return to the Middle East considered and realized, but not a Romani return to India?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!