Like did The British Raj give a percentage of there income to Britain or the fact that India has a lot of cotton and because it was under imperial rule British factories could get cheaper prices?
Not to discourage further discussion but you might be interested in a comment I made a few months ago about the argument and the evidence that colonialism was if anything a harm not only to the colonised but also to the economy of the colonising country. I'm happy to discuss further if anyone has questions.