I’ve always found it odd that the Germans stockpiled a bunch of chemicals gas and didn’t use them (Not including holocaust) in a combat capacity against the soviets or the western allies? Wouldn’t dropping gas on London be much more effective/devastating then random V-1 and V-2 strikes with no targets?
While there's always more to be said, this post by /u/commiespaceinvader addresses the use of chemical weapons in WWII, both in the context of the Holocaust and in combat.
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!