Can anyone comment on this article:
https://getpocket.com/explore/item/the-bomb-didn-t-beat-japan-stalin-did?utm_source=pocket-newtab
It presents an argument that the nuclear bombings of Japan had little to do with their surrender.
The main arguments seem to be that
I am not asking if this was 'right' or 'wrong' because clearly that is a much different question, and if we want to open that can of worms we need to talk about bombing, both conventional and nuclear, of civilian centers during WW2 in general, and the horrors that visited upon those civilians.
Rather, I am wondering if this article really does present an open and shut case for the fact that drawing a line between nukes and surrender is pretty much false.
And if so... would Truman and his advisors have known as much? And again if so... why drop the bomb then? To threaten the Soviets? To establish a new world order? Other reasons?
/u/restricteddata has answered different versions of this question, e.g. Did the United States HAVE to nuke Japan in WWII? and Did the atomic bombings in Japan indirectly prevent the deaths of more Japanese citizens than they killed? (alongside /u/wotan_weevil)
/u/t-o-k-u-m-e-i/ has previously discussed the book RACING THE ENEMY by Tsuyoshi Hasegawa, where a claim similar to yours is made.
EDIT: The Hasegawa book is also among the recommended texts by the subreddit about the War in the Pacific.