How did the U.S. founding fathers interpret the phrase "all men are created equal" in light of obvious discrimination?

by rosellem

I've always wondered how the men who wrote and signed off on the idea that "all men are created equal" justified their treatment of certain groups while also holding that belief.

In their minds were "men" just understood to be "white men" only? Was there any discussion on it? Did they consider they way women were treated to be "equal" just different? The idea that slavery was wrong was certainly common at that point, is there any evidence that any one saw the phrase "all men are created equal" as aspirational? That one day "men" would actually include black men? And where do non-land owning white men fit in this? Were they considered equal?

Also, I've been taught our democracy was based on the ideas of philosophers like Locke and Rousseau. Were there any philosophical discussions at the time about the treatment of blacks and women? Did any philosophers attempt to justify unequal treatment? Did the famous ones just ignore it (which is the impression i get)?

lg4492

More can be said of course, but here's what I found on the sub: u/sowser and u/uncovered-history both wrote answers to the question of how Thomas Jefferson specifically reconciled his ownership of slaves with "all men are created equal" here

DEAR_Mr_Eco

Can we also include Native Americans in this discussion, please? We’re always getting forgotten.