Is it true that in the Middle Ages (A.D. 476-1453), people only bathed once a year and that public baths were closed down because the Catholic Church feared that bathing would cause disease and immorality?

by [deleted]

Please cite sources!

BRIStoneman

Hello, I answered that question before here. There's a link in that answer which goes into more detail about Early Medieval hygiene.

The tl:dr is that, while people didn't bathe and the Church may have disproved of bath houses, this categorically doesn't mean that people didn't wash. It's largely a fault of modern vernacular that the two terms have been conflated, and while they might not have matched our modern germaphobic standards of cleanliness, medieval people still tried to be clean and presentable. Bathing dipped in and out of fashion during the Roman period anyway, and several notable Roman authors are known for their disapproval of bath houses; after all they are essentially giant infection vectors for disease. Apart from natural springs like Aqua Sulis (modern Bath), bath houses also required an substantial labour force to maintain, and only really made sense in an urban context which was largely lacking in the Early Medieval period. People tended to wash in rivers instead, which were both more convenient and more hygienic.

TL;DR(tl;dr): Bathing =/= washing.