So this tweet gets reposted every so often in various subs, and it got me thinking: is it true, as far as the Holocaust is concerned? Obviously there were various anti-jewish laws, the most prominent being the Nuremberg Laws, but did the Nazis ever bother creating a legal basis for the systematic killing of Jews and other minorities? Or was the Holocaust as criminal in a (German) legal sense as it obviously was in a moral sense.
There is always more to say, but u/commiespaceinvader has addressed your question in an earlier response, and you might like to review that while you wait for fresh answers to your query:
