This article claims that Anglo-Saxon laws allowed women to own property during the 800s (Norse women are also mentioned); however, they provide no sources and I had no success with Google, but I've found some other, later examples of female property rights in Europe, such as in Kiev and Turin.
I realize that some countries transitioned to a coverture system, but, before that, did places like England allow women to own property?
(Respectable sources for further reading will be greatly appreciated)
Hello, I answered a very similar question to yours here that I hope helps.
The tl:dr of that post is that we do indeed have evidence that Anglo-Saxon women could own property outright, both theoretically (in the form of legal provisions) and in reality (via wills).