I'm an English landowner with 273 acres. Where does that put me in the social hierarchy (circa 800, 1100, 1400, or 1700)?

by Canadairy

Since all land isn't created equal, we'll say 150 arable, 100 pasture, and the remainder buildings, forest, or swamp.

BRIStoneman

150 acres of arable land is barely more than a single 'hide' or, if you're post-1066, a 'ploughland'. These are primarily assessed in terms of productivity, but are roughly approximated to about 120 acres. The majority of early medieval peasant farmers, freeman or 'villager'/villein, worked on average a 'virgate' of land, about some 30 acres. 150 acres therefore is only enough to support 5 'villager' households, perhaps about 20 people. If this was your sole holding, it might not even be enough to qualify you as a member of the aristocracy at all; according to Wulfstan of York in 1002/3, owning around 5 hides of land (and thus having around 20 tenant households, or ~100 people), was enough to qualify you as a thegn, and thus qualify as (petty) nobility. Owning a hide would qualify you as a ceorl - a land-owning free peasant comprising around 10-16% of the population by the time of Domesday in 1086.