I was wondering when we went from kind of owning people during the crusades to the slavery we saw during the Trans-Atlantic Trade. is there an in between there? also what about "court" during say Elizabeth 1 rule, was slavery a thing?
sorry if this is worded a bit weird. I'm a bit unsure of what the difference is between the slaves during those times.
kind of owning people during the crusades
Tenant farming, like that which characterised much of the agrarian economy of Europe in the eleventh and twelfth centuries, did not equate to anything like owning people; in the same way that if you rent a house now, your landlord doesn't own you. For most villagers and smallholders, rent for their tenancies was carried out in the form of occasional labour on their lord's land. Actual slavery was, however, still very much of a phenomenon in eleventh century Europe.