The Aeolopile is thought to be the first steam engine ever invented and it could reach 1500 rpm (enough to chop your arm clean off). So why didn't it see more practical uses and remained a party trick? You'd think such a device would be found everywhere moving ships, mills and all sorts of machines. The wiki page mentions that it was used to propel a Spanish ship in 1547 but why didn't the ancients do it and why didn't the Spanish keep using it?
The question as to why the ancient world didn't use Hero's Engine to make an industrial revolution does come up from time to time. Though more could always be said, I posted an answer here TL:DR while it might have been made and operated as a small toy, making an engine and the boiler big enough to do useful work would have been very, very hard for the ancient Greeks and Romans.
I haven't looked at the source noted in the Wikipedia article for the Spanish ship, but the article only states that Blasco de Garay :
allegedly demonstrated before the Holy Roman Emperor, Charles V and a committee of high officials an invention he claimed could propel large ships in the absence of wind using an apparatus consisted of copper boiler and moving wheels on either side of the ship
Allegedly demonstrating an invention is different than having it drive a ship! The first witnessed example of anyone actually mounting a functioning steam engine to drive a boat would be in 1783, when Jouffroy D'Abbans had a Newcomen engine drive paddlewheels on a boat on the Saône. While immensely ingenious, his Newcomen design was just not heat-efficient enough to be able to effectively propel a boat that could carry its weight. While D'Abbans might have eventually improved his design to work, he didn't.
EDIT Looking into Blasco de Garay, it would appear that in 1825 Thomas Gonzalez claimed a librarian had found documents in the Royal Archives of Simuncas, from 1543, laying out this story, but it does not seem as though anyone since has managed to verify this.