We know that the slave trade between Africa and the Middle East was strong and enduring for centuries. However, we see next to zero embedded black communities in these countries (I would be happy and reassured to be corrected). In North and South America, the descendants of the slaves are a very substantial minority, as is expected. Why is there a difference?
This is a frequently asked question. Here are some previous answers:
I'm going to go to a post from about 3 years ago from, /u/Iguana_on_a_stick, who cited Here other previous posts on this subject (Not just going to cite the posts- his write up about them is informational as well, and his post is the one that led me to the older post),
The relevant content he cites are from /u/sowser who writes about the perspective of how the Americas have a such a large black population. sowser goes into a lot of detail, and i'd really recommend reading their post to get some perspective on the difference between US and Arabian slave trade, as it helps shed some light on why the difference is so stark.
Iguana_on_a_stick also cites u/Commustar, who writes more directly about the question, and gives a good write up about the numbers and the assimilation and such in the Middle East with slaves. Just like the very helpful Iguana_on_a_stick did, who led me to these very helpful responses, I'd like to point out u/yodatsracist who talks about Afro-Turkish populations, showing some African populations that do exist.