Comments recently claim he committed genocide and that it is genocide denial to clam that he didn't. How true is this?
The comments in question:
The comments on genocide normally always refer to the Bengal Famine of 1941-1943 and how the British government led by Churchill handled it. Bengal was in India, but India at the time was under British control.
You should read u/LORDBIGBUTTS recent in-dept response to the question on the subject "Were the policies of the British government under Churchill responsible of causing the Bengal Famine of 1943?"
Edit:
Do stay open minded though, the subject is multi faceted and heavily debated.
Here is another response by u/Wolfs_Bane2017
Was Winston Churchill partly responsible for the Bengal Famine of 1943?