If historian Gerda Lerner is wrong about the creation of patriarchy, then by what processes *did* women become subordinate to men in ancient Mesopotamia?

by allouez_green

In her book The Creation of Patriarchy, historian Gerda Lerner puts forth ten propositions for the process by which the patriarchy developed in the West, over the years from approximately 3000BC to 600 BC. She argues, for instance, that a first step was the appropriation of women's sexuality and reproduction, which occurred before the formation of private property and served as the foundation for the notion of private property. She argues that men learned to dominate by dominating women and then found ways to institutionalize dominance, through slavery. Another step, she argues, was the dethroning of goddesses and replacing them with a dominant male god. Patriarchy became fully entrenched, she claims, when women were symbolically demoted in relation to the divine and also philosophically considered to be damaged men. At that point, the subordination of women came to be seen as "natural."

I understand that her overarching argument is not widely accepted, but I cannot find what should take its place.

Which of her propositions have been disproven, and if so, what *is* the current understanding of how women's subordination (economically, socially, sexually, educationally, etc.) developed in the West? (Caveat: I know history focuses on written records, so apologies if this is more of a question for Assyriologists. Unfortunately, there is no AskAssyriology!)

GlaciallyErratic

This is a super interesting question, and since there were no answers and you mentioned a hypothetical "AskAssyriology", I ended up going down a rabbit hole in /r/askanthropology . There are a lot of great and relevant posts there, but the best and most relevant one that I found is here unfortunately from a deleted author so I can't summon them. It's well referenced, though!