If so many Sephardic Jews were expelled from Spain and Portugal during the Inquisition, how come that only a few small communities, mainly in Turkey survived until now days?

by Mchavar1

Recently in 2015 Spain issued the law 12 of 2015 in which they try to amend the horrors of the Inquisition and the wrong doings they did against the Sephardic Jews in the Iberian Peninsula. Portugal also issued a law in the same matter. As a descendant of former Jews expelled from Spain I did a lot of research of my ancestors whom were forced to leave Spain but also convert, changing their names, last names and even pretending to be catholic, but it is also appointed in some bibliography that they were in secret still practicing the Jewish traditions. Being so far from any Tribunal of the Holly Inquisition, I wonder why there are no relevant Sephardic speaking and Jewish communities in Latin America where a significant number of them were expelled.

As a side note, I have evidence that goes as far as to 1520’s in which fake Catholics came to the Americas, but even in those times they were speaking Castilian and following catholic traditions. Is there a specific reason why the language couldn’t be preserved in the Americas, but it could be preserved in places such as Turkey?

Finally, excuse my English as I said I am a native Spanish speaker and also I am glad to share any source of my research, although all of them are local and not available outside my region, and obviously are in Spanish.

hannahstohelit

I wrote a bunch about this in several posts here, but the short answer is that the Inquisition absolutely existed in Latin America- it was just established a little bit later.