Why do historians use old 15-16 century English similar to the King James Bible when translating documents from the ‘old world’?

by digginghistoryup

So I noticed that many of the English translations of Ancient text uses a similar language as the King James Bible. Why is this? I also noticed that when translating Native American text (the Popol Vuh for example) a more simple/modern diction is used. Why is this?

CommodoreCoCo

Could you provide an example of this? Is there a specific version of an ancient text that you had in mind?