I have wondered lately, about how humanity did not evolve technically that much over a period of roughly 2000-3000 years i'd say, compared to the last 200-250 years, starting with the industrial revolution.
The egyptians as well as the greece and the romans, or the chinese all had their scientific advancements, but it seems as they stopped at some point to develop them further. As for europe it somehow even developed backwards compared to roman times, but that has to do with church restrictions (not religious because the roman catholic church is sometimes not to be compared with the religious teachings of the bible).
Aside from those points, that may restrict it, what could be an explanation, that the Romans or Greece didn't develop further and did not create some sort of electric computer or steam machines for weaving and so on. Are there any explanations for this or thought's that have come up?
Any help would be appreciated with this train of thought.
There are a lot of problems with assumptions behind the question you're asking. One big false assumption you have is that the Church held back science - that's false, they were THE driving force behind the acquisition of knowledge during the middle ages. Here's a post by u/restricteddata discussing it:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/67pwj9/comment/dgsfsvl
I recommend you take a look at the FAQ, specifically the science and technology section:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/science#wiki_history_of_technology
Reading through those topics will give you an idea of why it wouldn't make sense for the people of those times to mass produce the things you mentioned, and especially the problems with the idea of technological progress