Can the Harrying of the North be considered a genocide? How intentful and extensive was the mass-killing of the populace and were there any groups specifically targeted?

by Liecht

I came across this question on the pinned genocide thread and am really interested and looking forward to any answers. Thank you in advance to anyone commenting!

mikedash

There is always more to say, but I discussed the problem of how extensive the harrying was in an earlier post, and this touched on the manner in which it was conducted and the Normans' reasons for carrying it out in the first place. You might like to review that thread while you wait for fresh responses to your query:

How bad was William I's "Harrying of the North"?

And u/Steelcan909 answered a very similar question a little earlier, here:

How devastating really was William the Conqueror's Harrying of the North in 1069-70? I've heard it described as anywhere from a wholesale genocide and slaughter to something more mild. What are the sources and evidence?