I understand that, in a sense, Jutland was a narrow escape for the High Seas Fleet, at the same time it seems that the losses to kills should be encouraging to further action in an attempt to win a war of attrition vs the Royal Navy via a series of battles.
Were the Germans dismayed that they didn't manage to sink any British battleships, and only battlecruisers?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!
While more can be said, please see my answer to a similar question here.