Why did the Spanish colonists have children with the native civilizations in their colonies and allowed a mixture in society, but the British and other European powers did not?

by phi_array

As examples look at Latin America and US and Australia.

It was very common for the Spanish to create families with the indigenous populations, to the point many people in Latin America consider themselves descendants of both Europeans and ancient civilization (like Aztecs or Mayans) but that didn’t really happen in British colonies like Australia or the US. To this day the majority of their population is “European descent”. Why was that? Why was mixing between Europeans and Native Americans so uncommon in places not colonized by Spain?

Not complaining or anything, just legit curiosity about the differences between colonial powers

the_gubna

See this section of the FAQ.

If you have any specific follow up questions I can try to answer them.